No me queda mas written for suzette9/14/2023 I would say that it can't be "quedarse" because the subject and the the object aren't the same here. Though I did attend a good language school, most of my language learning has been hands on. I'm interested to see what James or Lazarus have to say on this one as well, because I don't think this explaination works. If "No me queda más" is the complete sentence, then it means "I have no more (whatever we've been talking about)." An excruciatingly close/literal translation could be "For/to me there does not remain more (of whatever)." If the sentence were "No me queda más remedio." it could be translated as "I am left with no alternative." (which, as a translation, has the virtue of preserving "left") or (in somewhat more colloquial English) "I have no other choice." the "me" is simply the indirect object of "quedar". "quedarse" is pronominal in something like "Voy a quedarme un rato." (I'm going to stick around for a while) or "Me quedo aquí." (I'll stay here.) but in "No me queda más" it is not pronominal. I could otherwise be way off base with this. I hope I remember the sentence correctly as having "me" in it. Just guessing here, but if "quedar" has a sense of "to remain" and your sentence uses it as a pronomial verb "quedarse", perhaps it means that nothing remains of you.or, "you have no more to give." Is that possible'Incidentally, my web browser only shows an "r" as the subject of your post, but a few minutes ago, it showed a complete sentence. Not a direct translation, but that is how I would use it. If I said "me queda mucho trabajo" I would be saying I still have a lot of work left to do. What it is really saying is "five pesos remain" and i am their indirect object. I could say "me queda cinco pesos." Which feels to me like I had more I've spent most of it, but I still have five pesos. "Me queda" is more like it remain with me or in this case in me. But hey! we figured out, Wendy and I, how that sentence could mean what it means! And so did Redemida by feel - What a wonderful way to learn! and how I look forward to the day when I will be able to feel in Spanish. I read "pronomial verb" for the first time in my life looking up "quedar" in the dictionary. I do, at least know what an indirect object is and so understand your explanation, Samdie. This forum is invaluable due to the experienced ones who exercise great patience with people like me.Īh.I was indeed off base - with regards to the grammar, which I think I am going to have to learn more about now! I have to admit that I am not at all sure that I would ever recognize on my own the difference between a pronomial verb and a verb simply referring to an indirect object. I look at older threads and see where I went wrong. Paralee is an awesome teacher, but she can only fit so much time into each lesson. This forum is one place I have learned so much. So ALL input would be greatly appreciated. But as I get older, I find learning something new is a bit more challenging. You would think that after about 4 or 5 months of lessons, I would have a better understanding than I do. Granted, that wouldn't be the best way to say that but, and I know James will get me for this, hehe, how else can you take the word have? And by all means Lazarus and James, do feel free to give me a few sentences that would help me adjust my thinking. Or I could word it differently by saying, I don't have anything left to give. What in that sentence is making this change? If I am telling someone in English, I have no more to give, those are the only words I would use. So then, how can that say I have no more to give. I thought tengo was 'I have.' Quedar is, to remain, to stay. Ok, translated this says, I have no more to give.
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